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NEW QUESTION: 1
You want to enable Plan Component ID, Period ID, and Participant ID for use as parameters in a User-Defined Function. Which table should these be drawn from?
A. CN_TP_TRANSACTIONS_ALL
B. CN_SRP_PER_FORM_METRICS_ALL
C. CN_SRP_PIAN_C0HPONENTS_ALL
D. CN_SRP_SUBLEDGER_ALL
E. CN_SRP_PARTICIPANTS_ALL
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/farel10/salescs_gs/FACMI/FACMI1417756.htm#FACMI1400328

NEW QUESTION: 2
You have an Exchange Server 2013 organization named adatum.com. The organization contains five Mailbox servers.
You need to prevent a user named User8 from permanently deleting an email message in his mailbox.
What should you do on the mailbox of User8?
A. Configure a retention hold.
B. Configure an in-place hold.
C. Create a Retention tag.
D. Create an Archive mailbox.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In Exchange 2013, you can use In-Place Hold to accomplish the following goals:
Place user mailboxes on hold and preserve mailbox items immutably

Preserve mailbox items deleted by users or automatic deletion processes such as MRM

Use query-based In-Place Hold to search for and retain items matching specified criteria

Preserve items indefinitely or for a specific duration

Place a user on multiple holds for different cases or investigations

Keep In-Place Hold transparent from the user by not having to suspend MRM

Enable In-Place eDiscovery searches of items placed on hold

Note:
When a reasonable expectation of litigation exists, organizations are required to preserve electronically stored information (ESI), including email that's relevant to the case. This expectation often exists before the specifics of the case are known, and preservation is often broad. Organizations may need to preserve all email related to a specific topic or all email for certain individuals.
Failure to preserve email can expose an organization to legal and financial risks such as scrutiny of the organization's records retention and discovery processes, adverse legal judgments, sanctions, or fines.

NEW QUESTION: 3
With unmanaged CE routers, at which point in the service provider network is the QoS trust boundary, and what is required at the trust boundary?
A. between the customer network and the CE router ingress and applying the required egress QoS policy on the CE router
B. between the CE and PE router and mapping of the customer traffic classes into the service provider traffic classes at the PE router ingress
C. between the PE and the P router and mapping of the customer traffic classes into the service provider traffic classes at the P router ingress
D. between the PE and P router and trusting the QoS markings from the CE router and applying the required QoS mechanisms based on the customer QoS markings
E. between the CE and PE router and trusting the QoS markings from the CE router and applying the required QoS mechanisms based on the customer QoS markings
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

NEW QUESTION: 4
The director of software development is concerned with recent web application security incidents, including the successful breach of a back-end database server. The director would like to work with the security team to implement a standardized way to design, build, and test web applications and the services that support them. Which of the following meets the criteria?
A. SANS
B. OWASP
C. Ajax
D. PHP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://www.synopsys.com/software-integrity/resources/knowledge-database/owasp-top-
10.html